My spouse is buying my share of our house. He had it appraised and deducted the balance for our morgage from this amount to determine the price. Good so far, but then he also deducted a hefty realtor fee. He indicates this is the way it is done per the advice of several bankers. He also added on refinancing fees which is probably reasonable, but I really question the realtor fee since we are not using a realtor. Is this correct?