I got married 8 years ago and now have one child. He had a house already in his name. I received $40,000 one year ago in a personal injury settlement, and used 1/2 of it to pay off the second mortage. Now, since he is talking divorce, and I entitled to anything back from it? Or did he screw me or did I screw myself?
Regardless of where it went, the settlement will probably be considered marital property. The value of the house as of the time you were married is his. Any increase in value over these 8 years is marital property. Marital property is usually split 50-50.
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