Hi, my wife and I are splitting up after 3 years of marriage. Its mostly amicable. For some stupid reason we bought a pre-owned 2007 PT Cruiser on 12/8/07. And for an even stupider reason, I am the primary purchaser, because my credit is better. We are both on the loan but I am first. The car is for my wife. How can I get it entirely in her name when we split, which isn't actually until summer because of her school teaching. I don't want to be responsible for paying it, even if she agrees to take over payments, because she is terrible paying bills on time and will likely ruin my credit. How is this type of lien handled in divorce court? Thanks.